A 28-year-old female presents with complaints of fever and abdominal pain. She was in her usual state of health 1 week ago when she started experiencing lower abdominal pain. The pain progressively worsened, and she developed a fever 3 days later. She also reports vaginal discharge for the last 5 days. She has never had similar complaints previously. She is sexually active and has had multiple partners over the last 6 months. She uses oral contraceptives. On examination, she appears ill with a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C), a pulse of 105 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 22 per minute, and a blood pressure of 100/50 mmHg. Her abdominal examination demonstrates severe tenderness and guarding in the suprapubic region. Her genitourinary examination reveals an edematous and friable cervix with purulent discharge in the vaginal fornix. She complains of severe pain on palpation of the cervix. Her investigations reveal a white blood cell count (WBC) of 20,000/microL, a hemoglobin of 12 gm/dl, and a platelet count of 225,000 per microL. Microbiological analysis of the discharge demonstrates gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following measures would best have prevented the development

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