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A 23-year-old woman presents with intermittent postcoital vaginal bleeding and persistent purulent vaginal discharge for one week. On exam, her cervix is erythematous and friable. There is no cervical motion tenderness on exam. Which of the following is the best next step?😨😨😨AAdmit the patient for parenteral antibiotic therapyBInitiate empiric antibiotic therapyCObtain cervical culture

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