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5) is the reasoning below a good explanation as to why it makes sense (at least in hindsight) that a couple with four children is more likely not to have two of each sex than to have two of each sex? this fact can be correctly explained by saying that having exactly two of each gender is pretty specific. even though a specific 3-1 or 4-0 split is less likely than a 2-2 split, there are more ways to obtain a result other than a 2-2 split

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